tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Feb 10 07:31:52 2011

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RE: The verb {rIn}

Felix Malmenbeck ([email protected])



rIntaH is a special word that's sometimes used instead of the -ta'-suffix to denote a "notion of absolute finality".
Check out page 41 in TKD; it explains the usage of this word.

The only canonical examples I know of are luHoH rIntaH ("They have killed him/her.") and vIje' rIntaH ("I have purchased it.").
Extrapolating from the second of these examples, I think it's safe to say that your sentence would be paq vIlaD rIntaH.

According to TKD, rIntaH follows the verb it modifies, so supposedly "The man buys the targ." would be translated as targh je' rIntaH loD.  However, the only canonical examples are phrases of the form (verb prefix)-(verb) rIntaH, so for all we know it could also be targh je' loD rIntaH (here rIntaH follows the verb; just not directly).

//loghaD

________________________________________
From: [email protected] [[email protected]] on behalf of André Müller [[email protected]]
Sent: Thursday, February 10, 2011 15:36
To: [email protected]
Subject: The verb {rIn}

Hi,
I came across the verb {rIn} again, translation: "be accomplished, be
finished", for which I have one example sentence (Voragh, do you have
more?):
{luHoH rIntaH.}
They have killed him.

We can clearly see that this is not a usual construction in Klingon, the
pronoun {'e'} is not involved, its just two verbs after another. What's the
relation between them? And how does the construction work with other
persons? {luHoH} clearly means "they-kill(ed)-him", but does {rIntaH} mean
"they-are/have-finished" or {it-is/has-finished}? If I want to say something
like "I have finished reading the book." with this construction, is it {paq
vIlaD jIrIntaH.} (I am being finished reading the book.) or {paq vIlaD
rIntaH.} (It is being finished that I read the book.)? What do you think?

Any insight in this construction is welcome.
- André








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