tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Nov 27 21:49:48 2009
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Re: Checking understanding of -be'
On Nov 27, 2009, at 8:42 PM, "Seruq" <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>>> Is this "correct" use of <-be'>?
>
> That's how I've always used it.
> -be'lu', one does not V
> -lu'be', not one does V
I concur. This is a logical way to think of it.
Canon does not always support the logical conclusion, however. I can't
think of any examples that confirm this use of a negated {-lu'}.
-- ghunchu'wI
>