tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Jul 28 12:25:25 2002
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Re: -lu' and -be', small aside on Paul Simon
From: "DloraH" <DloraH@kli.org>
> > Can -lu' and -be' be used as -lu'be' to imply that there is no
> > subject for a particular action, or that nobody
> > does it? Perhaps an example will explain what I mean:
> > *Paul Simon* Sovlu'be'. noybe'.
> > No-one knows Paul Simon. He is not famous.
> > noy *Paul Simon*. 'ach Sovbe'lu'.
> > Paul Simon is famous. Even so, some people do not know him.
> > Is this usage possible? DuH'a' mu'tlheghmeyvam?
> As far as I know MO has not explicitly explained this, but what we know of
> suffix order, I agree with this. This is how I have been using it.
I don't think it works. /-lu'/ means "indefinite subject." Does that mean
/-lu'be'/ means "definite subject"? That doesn't make sense.
/-lu'/ doesn't mean "someone, the opposite of no one." It means "indefinite
I think that /-lu'/ itself can't be negated. You might put /-be'/ after it,
increasing the scope of /-be'/ to the entire verb rather than to just the
suffix (we've seen this done elsewhere).
That man is not known.
I tend to prefer the former of these two.