tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Jan 07 15:51:25 2000
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Re: KLBC : A somewhat advanced translation...
- From: "William H. Martin" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: KLBC : A somewhat advanced translation...
- Date: Fri, 7 Jan 2000 18:51:03 -0500 (Eastern Standard Time)
- In-Reply-To: <[email protected]>
- Priority: NORMAL
ghunchu'wI' already explained this well, but his explanation was
apparently not noticed. Why move Type 5 suffixes from a noun to
an adjective that follows it? Well, it removes a lot of
unnecessary, highly ambiguous constructions:
vengDaq tIn ghaH.
He is big in the city.
veng tInDaq ghaH.
He is in the big city.
A noun with a Type 5 suffix is grammatically set apart from
other nouns, unlike nouns followed by any other suffix type. It
makes sense to lump an adjective with such a noun, marking the
noun phrase the way you would have marked the noun.
vaHDaq Doq taj vIneH.
I want the knife in the sheath to be red.
vaH DoqDaq taj vIneH.
I want the knife in the red sheath.
charghwI'
On Thu, 6 Jan 2000 22:58:43 EST [email protected] wrote:
> [email protected] writes:
>
> > juDmoS the Inquisitive inquired:
> >
> > : When the verb qIj (be black) is used
> adjectively
> >
> > : here, the locative suffix -Daq is attached to the adjective, rather than
> > the
> > : noun. Why exactly is this ? It would seem to be more correct to say they
> > are
> > : *in* the *fleet*, which just happens to be *black*... but the locative
> is
> > : attached to the *black* and not the *fleet* It's a noun suffix attached
> > to a
> > : verb being used adjectively. [snip] Why isn't it 'ejyo'Daq qIj ?
> [...]
> > If you want chapter and verse for the rule pagh refers to, see TKD section
> > 4.4 "Adjectives" (p.50):
> >
> > If a Type 5 noun suffix is used (section 3.3.5), it follows the
> > verb, which, when used to modify the noun in this way, can have
> > no other suffix except the rover {-qu'} 'emphatic'. the Type 5
> > noun suffix follows {-qu'}.
> >
> > {veng tInDaq} "in the big city"
> > {veng tInqu'Daq} "in the very big city"
> >
> > A better question would be *why* did Okrand create this rule? Did he have
> > some other language in mind, perhaps one of the California Amerindian
> > languages he studied in graduate school? Did he just want to add a piece
> > of unusual, or unpredictable, syntax to what is still a very regular,
> > predictable grammar - perhaps overly regular, like too many artificial
> > languages. Or was he just felling a bit contrary that day?
> >
>
> My personal opinion is that, to the Klingon mind, there is no real distinction
> between the grammar of a complex word made from a noun + adjective and
> a noun + adjective phrase. That is, the Klingons see a word like {bIQtIq}
> 'river' as being sematically the same as {bIQ tIq} 'long water'; the only
> difference
> would be that long usage recognizes the fomer as a bound expression
> representing something different that 'long water'. This being the case,
> they put Type 5 noun suffixes at the end of the meaning unit of noun +
> adjective.
> It would seem unnatural to them to separate them.
>
> -- ter'eS
>
> http://www.geocities.com/~teresh_2000