tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sat Jan 20 08:47:03 1996

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Re: Some risque (not "risky") interpretations

>
>>I hope this raises as much of a smile as the next word,which
>>Marc Okrand himself gave us:
>
>>			nga'chuq              sex - always subject
>
>>Now, the -chuq suffix (Type 1 verb) implies plurality, since it is 
>>assumed that sex is always conducted with more than one person. How 
>>many is more than one, by the way? :-)
>
*snip*

>
>These have been suggested.  However, it is notable that Okrand offered the
>word "nga'chuq" and NOT the putative verb "*nga'".  Had the verb "*nga'"
>existed, Okrand would have put *that* in the list, and not a special form.
>It seems that there really isn't evidence for a separate verb "*nga'"; the
>"nga'chuq" form is apparently a fossilized relic.
>
>Now, we DO have the verb "ngagh" meaning "mate with" (from a tape-phrase
>"targhlIj yIngagh, yIruch"), which you can use with -'egh.  I'm not sure
>the result would be "masturbate" though, nor that "*nga''egh" would mean
>that either.  Is masturbation really having sex with yourself?  It's
>exciting yourself sexually, yes, but maybe "*nga'/ngagh" refers to the act
>of coupling/mating, rather than arousal.
>
>~mark
>

I'm confused.  Mark Okrand gave us /nga'chuq/  To mate with (backtranslatable 
as to sex each other -- I know, a back translation is heresy :-)  )

You have a word *spoken* on a tape, that y'all have decided is spelled
/ngagh/.  It's obvious to me that the spelling of the word on the tape
should be /nga'/ becuase of /nga'chuq/.  Why are y'all so Certain that
it's /ngagh/ when MO hasn't spoken?  (Except to provide /nga'chuq/??)

Inquiring minds want to know  :-)   (how do you say that in tlhIngan?)

tevram

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