tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Sep 12 03:37:23 1994
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Re: tu'lu' vs. lutu'lu'
- From: "Mark E. Shoulson" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: tu'lu' vs. lutu'lu'
- Date: Mon, 12 Sep 1994 15:32:44 -0400
- In-Reply-To: <[email protected]> (message from Jeremy Cowan on Sun, 11 Sep 1994 01:40:06 -0500 (CDT))
>From: Jeremy Cowan <[email protected]>
>Date: Sun, 11 Sep 1994 01:40:06 -0500 (CDT)
>On Sat, 10 Sep 1994, William H. Martin wrote:
>> According to janSIy:
>> > When using the word tu'lu' where does the noun go?
>> The NOUN is the OBJECT, which PRECEEDS {tu'lu'}. It is treated
>> like a passive subject in translation, but it is still the
>> object.
> Forget the English translation! On page 39, TKD gives us the example of
>Daqawlu'. Here the thing being found is obviously "you" and is used as
>the subject. That would imply that the "object" that you refer to above is
>actually the subject.
> So when you want to say, "Someone remembers Maltz"/"Maltz is
>remembered," Maltz acts as the subject. Thus - qawlu' matlh.
No. Okrand says that "Da-" has its meaning reversed with "-lu'" and is
used to indicate second-person-singular *object*, not subject, and the
subject is indefinite (apparently 3sg). "Daqawlu'" means "someone/thing
remembers you," where "you" is the thing being remembered: the *object* of
the verb "remember". Get it?
~mark