tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Jul 18 04:49:18 1994

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Apposition



>From: "Kevin Wilson (DV 1994)" <[email protected]>
>Date: Mon, 18 Jul 1994 00:39:19 -0400 (EDT)


>Dear SuvwI'pu',

>   In translating Genesis I have encountered a minor question of 
>grammer.  The verse in question reads something like "Abram spoke to 
>Sarai, his wife."  I have translated it as

>SaraivaD be'nalvaD jatlhta' abram

>The nouns Sarai and be'nal are obviously in opposition.  The question I 
>have, however, is whether the -vaD is necessay on both of the nouns or 
>not.  I realize that in English two nouns in apposition must share the 
>same syntactical function, but I am not quite sure how (or even if) this 
>is followed in tlhIngan Hol.  Since in English both Sarai and wife are in 
>a prepositional phrase, while in tlhIngan they are both just nouns, I am 
>unsure how to make the comparison.  The "to" can pull double duty in 
>English; can the -vaD do the same for tlhIngan Hol?  Or must it be 
>repeated?  

Required?  Maybe not.  But it certainly should.  Insofar as nouns in
apposition are allowed (and I don't know of any canonical examples, though
I support them myself), we have to watch for confusion with N-N
constructions.  "Sarai be'nalvaD" sounds to me like "to Sarai's wife".  I
think in order to use nouns in apposition, they should (and I almost want
to say "have to") be in case-agreement (i.e. have the same type-5 suffix,
if any).  In fact, someone (Holtej?) pointed out once that adding "-'e'" to
both members of an apposition pair is a good way to flag it as such and not
a noun-noun construction, since N-N's can't have type-5 suffixes on the
first member.  I quite like that.

~mark



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