tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Jan 09 12:56:17 1998

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{-meH} and its useage

I was reading some articles from the past year about Krankor's little
{-vo'} trick, from some number of {HolQeD} and find that Marc E. Shoulson
notes:

>Purpose clauses we got. We have "ghojmeH taj" given in isolation as a noun
>phrase for "training knife." and a few others. And TKD says that -meH
>clauses precede the NOUN or verb they modify.

I just wondered how it would look like if a {-meH} phrase would modify a
verb, especially if both the {-meH} phrase *and* the other verb has both
subject and object.

My example sentence is:
  The warrior attacks the boy in order to learn the boy {tonSaw'}.

Now, should this be expressed as:
   {tonSaw' ghojmeH loDHom loDHom HIv SuvwI'}

or:
   {loDHom tonSaw' ghojmeH loDHom HIv SuvwI'}

(Since the TKD [p64] talks about the purpose clause preceeding the *verb*,
not the object-verb-subject construction.)

And in both these cases it would be easy to mix up subject and object of
the two phrases, for example if the final object-verb-subject did not have
an object noun.

Am I missing something here, or is this really the case?

/{'eQ}, Sweden

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