tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Aug 26 04:02:42 1996
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Re: Khamlet vs Hamlet
- From: "Mark J. Reed" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: Khamlet vs Hamlet
- Date: Mon, 26 Aug 1996 07:02:12 -0400
- Organization: Hewlett-Packard Company
- References: <[email protected]>
I think the confusion here is over the intended reading of "kh".
It is very common, in English, to represent as "kh" the sound
written as H in Klingon, or "ch" in German, etc. It is, in fact,
the most common transcription of that sound, which does not occur in
English words. If you look up Bach in an English dictionary, chances
are the pronunciation will be written "bakh", probably with either a
diaresis or a circumflex over the a.
There is no "k" sound in "kh"; the "h" is intended to make it a
fricative instead of a stop. This is part of the rationale behind
Okrand's representation of the {gh} sound, which similarly contains
no "g" component.
-marqoS