tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Jun 28 03:30:26 2009

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Re: {'Iv} and {law'}/{puS}

Mark J. Reed ( [KLI Member]

On Sat, Jun 27, 2009 at 8:44 PM, ghunchu'wI'<> wrote:
>> I did misplace the {ghap} in the first sentence. Âpagh goes
>> between, ghap
>> goes at the end.
> More precisely, {pagh} goes between *verbs* and {ghap} goes after
> *nouns*.

Well, yes.  But the fact that {pagh} is used for verbs (sentences) and
{ghap} for nouns wasn't what I was confused about. I got that part
right :)

> qoH tlha'bogh Dogh law' tlha'bogh qoH Dogh puS, pagh tlha'bogh qoH
> Dogh law' qoH tlha'bogh Dogh puS.

"The followed fool is more foolish than the following fool, or the
following fool is more foolish than the followed fool." OK..

> 'Iv ghaH qoH Dogh'e'?

"Who is the foolish fool?"  That question doesn't feel like a choice
between the two alternatives just presented either.

DT>  'Iv Dogh law' latlh Dogh puS: qoH, tlha'bogh qoH ghap?

Pithy and retains the sense of the original. maj.

I also like Doq's idea of asking which is the {qoHna'} instead of
making a {law'}/{puS} with {Dogh}.  I mean, it completely sidesteps
the "who is more X" problem that was the whole point of my post :),
but probably for that reason it works very well as a translation.
Plus, it keeps the visible connection (as between "fool" and
"foolish") that is missing between {qoH} and {Dogh}.

Mark J. Reed <>

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