tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Mar 04 17:10:48 2004
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Re: Did Hoch, now pagh...
From: "...Paul" <[email protected]>
> I was just wondering, whilst I sit in this meeting at work, whether or not
> /pagh/ can be used like /Hoch/? Can I say /tlhIngan Hol jatlhlaH
> tera'ngan pagh/ for "None of the Terrans can speak Klingon"? Or is it
> only /pagh tera'ngan/?
>
> Is there a similar subtle difference between whether or not /pagh/ appears
> before or after the noun?
You've got the {Hoch} idea backward if you're asking the question this way.
tlhIngan Hol jatlhlaH Hoch tlhIngan.
Each Klingon can speak Klingon.
tlhIngan Hol lujatlhlaH Hoch tlhInganpu'.
All Klingons can speak Klingon.
If {tlhIngan Hol jatlhlaH tlhIngan Hoch} means anything, it's probably, "All
of the Klingon can speak Klingon" (whatever that means). It does not mean
either of the two English sentences above.
We know how {pagh} works, too:
Dal pagh jagh.
No enemy is boring. (TKW)
I'm pretty sure we have no data regarding any difference between, say, {pagh
jagh} and {pagh jaghpu'}. It might be the difference between "no enemy" and
"no group of enemies," but that's just guessing. We also have no reason to
suspect that {pagh} is meaningful after a noun. {pagh}is a number and a
noun. It is not a verb, and thus does not modify nouns adjectivally.
SuStel
Stardate 4175.3
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