tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Dec 31 10:43:07 1999
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Re: Online Klingon Language Course
- From: J242110559@aol.com
- Subject: Re: Online Klingon Language Course
- Date: Fri, 31 Dec 1999 13:42:48 EST
>When you "own" something you "possess" it. But when you "possess"
>something you don't necessarily "own" it. That is, "possess" has
>multiple meanings one of which is "own", but it doesn't necessarily
>have that meaning, and a word meaning "possess" in another language
>from English might not carry the same set of meanings. I think the
>point being made here is that there is no canon for interpretating
><ghaj> to mean "possess (in the sense of own)", only "possess
>(in the sense of have)".
What you are saying, IOW, is that "own" is a subset of "possess." If this is
true, than one can use the word "possess" wherever one can use the word
"own." For example:
I own a house.
I possess a house.
The emperor owns this ship.
The emperor possesses this ship.
Dujvam ghaj voDleH.
The owner dislikes you.
The possessor dislikes you.
(Note that "have" could be substituted for "own" or "possess" in any of these
examples: "I have a house," "The emperor has this ship," and "The haver
dislikes you." Of course, "haver" isn't really a word, but you know what I