tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Nov 14 20:17:21 1996

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RE: KLBC - just "jatlh" - why?



jatlh Al Weiner:

>  So I'll change my question to:
>  	Why <jatlh> instead of <jatlhta'> ?

{jatlhta'} means "have said," "had said," or "will have said."  It is not past 
tense, it is completed aspect  It indicates that at whatever time the sentence 
refers to, the action was already completed.  With {-ta'} it means it was 
completed intentionally.  With {-pu'}, there is no indication that it was done 
on purpose.  See the FAQ.

I *could* say {jatlhta'}, but whether or not the saying is completed is not 
important.  I *could* say {jatlhta' *Al*, <qatlh . . .>}, and it would mean 
"Al had said 'Why . . .'"  But if I just say {jatlh *Al*, <qatlh . . .>}, it 
means "Al said, 'Why . . .'"

SuStel
Beginners' Grammarian
Stardate 96873.6


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