tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sat May 18 06:44:33 1996

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Re: Phonology once again (was: Re: qaSovlu' jIneH)



At 09:54 AM 5/16/96 -0700, marqoS wrote:

>[email protected] writes:
>\ ..,thus glottal-stop
>\ becomes glo'l'-stop, with the {-'} carrying out the same function as the
>\ {-'} presant in the Klingon language.
>I'm not sure I understand the point here.  "glottal" is only pronounced
>/glo?@l?/ in certain dialects of British English.  In American English,
>it's pronounced /glot@l/ or /glod@l/, with no glottal stop anywhere.
>And if you try to use the glottal stop after the 'l' as an example,
>which is not pronounced by all speakers anyway, first you have to
>convey the semivocalic nature of the /l/ sound itself . . .

Well, you are right there, my father is Liverpudlian <sp?>, and I was
disscribing the way it is pronounced in parts of the north of Britain,
trying to show that the word "glottal" contains two glottal-stops. I am not,
and have never been an American, so I don't know how you would pronounce it,
but I do know that the word itself contains the glottal-stops that show you
how a glottal-stop would be pronounced in a different situation. (One in the
middel and one at the end.) In the Oxford Concise Dictionary they put the
glottal-stop exacty where I put mine.

>I still think that Okrand's description was an attempt to teach
>people who have trouble with a syllable-final /?/.  (I think charghwI's
>"imagine that you get hit in the stomach with a football just at the
>end of the syllable" is a good description, actually. :))

When I get hit in the stomach by a football, my reaction is to breath out.
I've tried it.



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