tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Jul 18 08:50:09 1994
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Re: Apposition
On Mon, 18 Jul 1994, Heidi Wessman wrote:
> > In translating Genesis I have encountered a minor question of
> > grammer. The verse in question reads something like "Abram spoke to
> > Sarai, his wife." I have translated it as
> >
> > SaraivaD be'nalvaD jatlhta' abram
> >
> > nuq boSov? chay' 'e' vImugh?
>
> chuQun reads this phrase. the Bible Translation Project fascinates her.
>
> "Couldn't you just say
> Sarai be'nalvaD jatlhta' abram
> -or-
> saraibe'nalvaD jatlhta' abram
>
> (Abram spoke to his wife Sarai.)
>
> Also, wouldn't there be a -Daj in there? be'nalDajvaD? To HIS wife?"
>
> chuQun wondered if she got that correct. She does not have a dictionary
> at her disposal, but she's getting better.
The first example has much to recommend it, as it encloses the
apposition within the -vaD. It does strike me, however, as a backwards
reading somewhat. I would prefer that the first noun be marked if we are
going to only mark one noun. The second example I do not like at all, as
it seems to make a meaningless compound noun. You are right, of course,
when you say that -Daj should be inserted. Since it was not the main
point of the post, I completely forgot about it.
DopDaq qul yIchenmoH QobDI' ghu'!
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| Kevin A. Wilson [email protected] |
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