tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Jul 29 15:29:51 2004

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RE: TKD phrase: {-meH} clause

QeS lagh ([email protected])



ghItlhpu' Holtej:

>It's ambiguous because it's in the object position; which of these two do 
>you prefer:
>Dochvetlh DIlmeH yapbe' HuchwIj
>yapbe' Dochvetlh DIlmeH HuchwIj

cha'DIch chovnatlh vImaStaH.
I still prefer the second.

>Both are grammatical, but I find the first one more natural to say and
>understand. You seem to be implying that the only correct view is the
><DIlmeH Huch> one, and I disagree.  Is the disagreement over why, if the
><DIlmeH> reading is preferable to the <DIlmeH Huch> one, this isn't
>{<Dochvetlh vIDIlmeH> Huch 'ar DaneH} (with an appropriate prefix)?

qar.
Yes, that's right.

>If {Huch} is the subject of {DIlmeH} in the <DIlmeH Huch> case, then it can 
>be
>the subject (as an elided pronoun) in the <DIlmeH> one too.  Yes?

Hrm. That brings up an interesting question: Does money pay for something, 
or does a person pay for something? Or both? I was basing what I said on the 
postulation that a person (subject) pays for something (object), in which 
case {Dochvetlh DIlmeH yapbe' HuchwIj} still lacks {vI-}.

But if your interpretation of the subject of {DIl} is correct, then you're 
right, {Huch} could be the head of a normal verb-type purpose clause here. 
Perhaps that's more the issue here: can {Huch} be the subject of {DIl}? 
Voragh, are there any other instances of {DIl} in canon?

QeS lagh

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