tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Tue Jul 20 05:20:19 2004

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Re: Klingon WOTD: waQ (v)

David Trimboli ([email protected]) [KLI Member] [Hol po'wI']



From: "Lieven L. Litaer" <[email protected]>

> >> From: "Lieven L. Litaer" <[email protected]>
> >> DIvI' Hol vIjatlhlaHbe'. mu' <obstruct> <waQ> joq yIQIj.
> >> chay' mu' <waQ> vIlo'laH?
>
> SuStel:
> > HuvHa'chugh vay', vay'vam waQlu'pu'.
>
> Okay. Hm. Since it's me who was asking, I agree I do not know what the
word
> means, but that looks too literal.
> I didn't see any relationship between
>
>   obstruct v. waQ
> and
>   be clear (not obstructed) v. Huv

How about the word "obstruct."

> I think so because MO usually (or frequently) makes words in pairs, and
> besides, I believe that "not obstructed" is used only as a discription for
> "clear". There would be a word "be obstructed", and {waQlu'pu'} is not the
> adjective form of "to obstruct", as it seems in SuStel's sentence:

This may satisfy your sense of symmetry, but I see no problem here.

So far as we know, {waQ} means "obstruct."  That's what TKD says it means.
If you don't know what "obstruct" means, look it up.

vay' vIwaQchugh, HuvHa' 'oH.
If I obstruct something, it is obstructed.

What's the problem?

> adapting to SuStel's sentence's logic, {Huv} is equal to {waQlu'be'},
which
> I doubt.

Not equal.  One is a verb of quality, the other is not.

SuStel
Stardate 4551.7





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