In a message dated 98-09-15 13:05:30 EDT, Voragh presents: << DuraS tuq tlhIngan yejquv patlh luDub 'e' reH lunIDtaH DuraS be'nI'pu' lurSa' be'etor je. >> Again, a canon source on which I need an explanation. Why does the adverb {reH} follow the object-marker of the clause {'e'}? I thought adverbs precede object+verb+subject basic sentence peHruS