tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Apr 28 00:38:10 1995

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KLBC: Question (was Re: bIjatlh 'e' yImev)



jabbI'IDwIj yIlaD

lI'ta' charghwI'
> 
> My problem with this attempt is the word choice {jeS}, which
> means "participate", not "participate in". It strikes me as a
> rather intransitive verb. Your sentence literally translates
> into the two sentences:
> 
> "Maltz and Mara play ball. Worf participates that."
> 
> See? Doesn't that sound rather awkward? Furthermore, "play
> ball" is probably a little too idiomatic to presume that it
> translates well. We do not know that {Quj} exhibits
> transitivity in this specific way.
> 
I always thought that the omission of obvious Prepositions
in TKD meant that you can use the verb both ways, i.e.
bIjeSqang'a' means Do you want to participate (in whatever
we are doing) while one had to say DajeSqang'a' if a
specific action is being talked about. I thought
that's the consequence of p.34 (the example of maSop).

So if I see, e.g. DoH = get away from, I assume an
object is required, if I see toS = climb (klettern)
I assume I can say matoS (wir klettern -> no Prep)
as well as nagh matoS (wir klettern AUF den Felsen)
(sorry I was unable to find an english example -
what is an "object" in english can be accusativ-,
dativ-, genitiv- or prepositional object in german)

> But, this really IS a noun-noun construction. Like any such
> construction, it may be translated as "The child's another one"
> or "another one of the child", or since obvious plurals often
> omit the plural suffix, "another one of the children", which is
> the form of translation English speakers will find most
> comfortable.
> 
however the noun-noun construction is supposed
to be possessiv, while "another one of the children"
would be considered 'genitivus partitivus' as in
'a buck of gold, a glass of wine' a.s.o.

is it o.k. to use NNC in this manner then?

			Marc Doychlangan

--
----------------------------------------------------
Marc Ruehlaender	[email protected]
Universitaet des Saarlandes, Saarbruecken, Germany
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