tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sat Jan 08 15:15:42 2005
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Re: Sa'HutwIj [HI/yI]chop
- From: "QeS lagh" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: Sa'HutwIj [HI/yI]chop
- Date: Sun, 09 Jan 2005 09:14:48 +1000
- Bcc:
ghItlhlu'pu':
>Which is correct: {{Sa'HutwIj HIchop}} pagh {{Sa'HutwIj yIchop}}?
janglu':
>You are not a body part. The second sentence is correct.
jang lay'tel SIvten:
>jIQochbe'. lugh mu'tlhegh cha'DIch, 'ach pIm meqwIj.
jIQochbe' jIH, 'ach pIm je mo'wIj. {{:)
I agree, but for another different reason. :)
>If the first sentence were right, it would have two distinct and
>unconjoined direct objects,
Not quite. {Sa'HutwIj HIchop} is grammatical, but it doesn't mean "bite my
bottom". There would be a direct object {Sa'Hut} and an indirect object
{jIHvaD}.
We know already that if there is a non-third-person object prefix and an
explicit direct object, the object prefix is the equivalent of a free
pronoun with {-vaD}. I don't think {Sa'HutwIj HIchop} would ever be
interpreted as anything other than the prefix trick equivalent of {jIHvaD
Sa'HutwIj yIchop} "bite my bottom for me".
>If such direct objects are allowed, then the prefix is wrong, because it
>would have to be the 1st person plural object prefix - {gho-} - to reflect
>the combination of "it" (Sa'Hut) and "me".
This is even weirder in my mind. Plural?? But there's only one thing being
bitten. If you were to use a prefix representing the plural, you'd need to
conjoin {Sa'Hut} and {jIH}: ??{Sa'HutwIj jIH je ghochop}. And again, you'd
have the problem with the prefix. No, I definitely think that a sentence
like this would normally be interpreted with the prefix trick.
Savan,
QeS lagh
taghwI' pabpo' / Beginners' Grammarian
not nItoj Hemey ngo' juppu' qan je
(Old roads and old friends will never deceive you)
- Ubykh Hol vIttlhegh
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