tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon May 26 13:51:34 2003
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Re: difference between "to be" and "to be"
ghItlh Clayton Cardoso:
>important difference between "to be" (ser) and "to be" (estar).
>I can see no easy way to express this distinction in many tera'
>languages.
Right. That's why it's so hard for many europeans to learn the difference when they learn spanish.
>I wonder if the use of the ongoing suffix would mark this
>distinction in Klingon.
No, there is no such difference in Klingon. Especially, because there is no verb "to be" :-)
>jIbuD. (I'm lazy, and that's a personal feature of mine).
No, you could say {DaHjaj jIbuD} and then it means
"today I'm lazy (but that's not a personal feature of mine)"
>jIbuDtaH. (I feel lazy, I have no desire to do anything at this
{jIbuDtaH} is more continuous, not just for the moment.
TKD section 4.2.7 explains this difference:
<<<<<<
The meaning of {-taH} can be seen clearly by comparing the following two commands:
{yIjun} "execute an evasive maneuver!"
{yIjuntaH} "take evasive action!"
In the first case, the maneuver is to be executed once only. In the second, a series of evasive
maneuvers is to be executed -- the action is to be continuous.
>>>>>>
If you want to describe "a personal feature of mine", you can make a noun out of it using v#9 {-
wI'}:
{buDwI' jIH} "I am a lazy one"
(lit: somebody who is lazy)
Does it help? If not, don't hesitate to ask more questions, or start a discussion!
Quvar
Beginners' Grammarian
ghojwI'pu'wI' vISaH