tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Tue Jun 10 19:12:12 2003

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Re: the glottal stop

ah HAH! mojaqvam'e' DaH vIyaj. {{:P

At least I won't have to recast <<ja'chuq>> anymore.

>I am also of the opinion that the rule in TKD's Addendum in which you may
>move the object noun to the front of the sentence, before any adverbials or
>other "headers," by placing /-'e'/ on it makes the noun no longer an 
>object,
>but a "header" with the semantic role of topic.
>
>DaH Qel yISam
>Find the doctor now!
>(/Qel/ is the object.)
>
>Qel'e' DaH yISam
>Find the doctor now!
>(/Qel'e'/ is the topic, and is not an object at all.  This sentence might 
>be
>rewritten as /Qel'e' DaH ghaH yISam/.)
>
>(Note, this interpretation is my opinion, not a known fact.)

An opinion which makes sense in the light of the canon.

>I also believe that in "to be" constructions, it makes no sense to speak of
>a subject or object.  In /Qel ghaH loD'e'/ "the man is a doctor," I don't
>believe that /Qel/ is the object and /loD'e'/ is the subject.  I believe
>that /Qel ghaH/ "doctor him (he is a doctor)" is a statement, and /loD'e'/
>indicates what you're talking about.  "As for the man, he is a doctor."
>
>(This interpretation is also my opinion.)

Or: "*Tarzan* jIH; *Jane* SoH." :P qayaj.

>
>It is also well established that /-'e'/ can be used on nouns to emphasize,
>rather than topicalize.  It even makes sense to do both at the same time.
>
>ropmey vor Qel'e'
>As for the doctor, he cures diseases.
>The DOCTOR cures diseases (as opposed to someone else).
>
>In the right context, either of these interpretations might make sense, and
>there could even be cases where both are relevant.  Imagine a listener who
>ignorantly continues to believe that the patient (SID) is the one who cures
>diseases.  The speaker grabs the listener's shoulders, shakes him a bit, 
>and
>shouts in his face, /Qel'e'!  ropmey vor Qel'e' jay'!!!/
>
>In summary: /-'e'/ is known to be used both for topic and emphasis.

chochuHchu'pu'. qatlho'.

QeS lagh

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