tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Jan 19 13:44:15 2003

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Re: "to be" and plurals



>From: "Sangqar (Sean Healy)" <[email protected]>
>But should you even use numbers with inherent plurals?  As I recall, the 
>inherent plurals refer to things considered as a single unit/group (can't 
>remember where I read this); therefore using a number with them would seem 
>to be a contradiction.

I don't think it's been stated anywhere by Okrand that words with plural 
meanings are considered a single group.  Certainly we treat them that way 
grammatically, but I don't know of anything that would prevent me from 
talking about /wej cha/ "three torpedoes."

wej cha yIbaH
Fire three torpedoes!

wej peng tIbaH
Fire three (scattered) torpedoes!

On the other hand, it's possible that you're correct, and that inherently 
plural nouns can't be modified by numbers.  This is, I think, an area we 
just won't know about without information from Maltz.

SuStel
Stardate 3052.2

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