tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed May 31 08:46:39 2000

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RE: (KLBC) Use of {-vaD}




> ja' ghaHbe'wI':
> >paghvaD Hon wa' vIghelmeH jabbI'IDvam vIqonta'. lugh'a' 
> mu'tlheghmey veb:
> 
> chaq lugh, 'ach QIv 'e' vIQub jIH.
> 
> >1) jIHvaD 'IH mara.
> 
> This might makes me think that Mara is all dolled up for a date with you.
> It might be better to say something like {'IH mara 'e' vIQub}.

Or {'IHlaw' mara}.

> >2) ghot law'vaD moH Humanpu'.
> 
> While I'm able to tease the intended meaning out of this, I don't like it
> much at all.  Like the first one, {moH Humanpu' 'e' luQub ghot law'} or a
> similar phrase.
> 
> >1a) To me {mara} is pretty.
> >    (I believe that {mara} is pretty)
> >
> >2a) To many people Humans are ugly.
> >    (Many people believe that Humans are ugly)
> >
> >I'm applying Latin grammar to {tlhIngan Hol}, specifically the dative
case
> >to the the noun sufix {-vaD}. I know that it is the kind of thing one
must
> >avoid, but to me both sentences make sense...
> 
> Why not say it the way you have explained it in parentheses?  The {-vaD}
> suffix is supposed to indicate the beneficiary of an action, and its use
> as an indirect-object marker probably shouldn't be expanded beyond that.

I believe TKD explains that "I believe..." is a possible interpretation of
{-law'} (as in {'IHlaw' mara}).  Do we have any examples of it applying to
more than just the speaker, as in {moHlaw' Humanpu'} to mean something like
"we believe" or "it is generally believed"?  {moH Humanpu' net Qub} is fine,
just wondering.

> -- ghunchu'wI' 'utlh

-- Holtej 'utlh

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