tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Jul 02 21:06:01 2000

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RE: obtuse question



> -----Original Message-----
> From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]]
> Sent: Thursday, June 29, 2000 4:07 AM
> To: [email protected]
> Subject: Re: obtuse question
>
>
> jatlh De'vID
> >Would there be a difference in terms of the "feel" of /muSawHa'ta'wI'/
> >and /vInayHa'ta'wI'/?  The first sounds to me like the divorce was on
> >the husband's terms, and the second sounds like it was the wife who
> >divorced the husband.  Is there something more neutral, that could
> >indicate that the divorce was on amicable terms (very un-Klingon-like),
> >or that both parties equally agreed to it?

Change {-ta'} to {-pu'} and you've removed the connotation that the divorce
was a goal intentionally sought. It is just something that happened with no
comment as to who planned it or wanted it.

> I read this and the thought occurred to me that there would be no
> divorce in
> a tlhIngan marriage.  What are common grounds for divorce?
> Affairs, abuse,
> money problems, etc.  It seems to me that a spouse would kill the other
> spouse and their partner in a case of an affair, Abuse would be
> handled in
> honorable combat.. In fact, perhaps the tlhIngan institute of
> marriage is so
> sacred that it can only be broken by death.  Perhaps a divorce
> ceremony where
> the spouses fight to the death, the survivor takes all.

Have you heard about the Divorce Barbie? She comes with all of Ken's stuff.

[tatum pa! tissssssssss]

But seriously, we have had no mention of Klingon divorce or of anyone who
has divorced a living partner. Perhaps you are correct.

> But while we're on the topic of past marriages, what is a widows husband
> called?  Or even the widow herself?

You call a widow {be'}. loDnal naypu' 'ach Hegh.

You don't call a widow's husband anything. Why waste your time calling him?
He won't answer. yIbuSHa' neH. veQ 'oH lom'e'.

> -veS joH

charghwI'



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