tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Nov 03 12:44:43 1999

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Re: the scope of {-be'}



On Wed, 03 Nov 1999 09:32:44 CST Marc Ruehlaender 
<[email protected]> wrote:

> 
> talking about the scope of {-be'} in {maqarbe'chu'},
> charghwI' said (among many other things):
> > But there is no way to apply negation to a pronoun unless it is 
> > being treated as a verb. To use that in this kind of 
> > construction, we have to go to the perversity of:
> > 
> > qarwI'pu' maHbe'.
> > 
> > Yuck.
> >  
> 
> first of all, although _languages_ are not logical at all,
> to me (not(we are accurate)) comes out to be the same as
> (we are (not accurate)); ((not we) are accurate) covers a
> subset of the former, namely that subset where there is
> someone else who _is_ accurate. Both others _include_ the
> cases where there is _noone_ who is accurate.
> 
> and in the languages I know, this latter case always has to
> be described in some convoluted way:
> 
> it's not us who are accurate

Others are more accurate.
latlhpu' qar law' maH qar puS.

> c'est pas nous qui sommes accurats(sp?)
> nicht wir sind genau
> 
> vs
> 
> we are not accurate
> nous ne sommes pas accurats
> wir sind nicht genau
> 
> so, it's not surprising that Klingon has to strain as well
> to convey that meaning.

My whole point is that if you accept the globalized model of how 
{-be'} works, you don't have to strain for this meaning. It's 
simply one of the ambiguous meanings of the word {maqarbe'chu'}.
 
> and in general, I have the feeling that both charghwI' and
> ghunchu'wI' agree on the core matter; it's just that their
> "pain threshold" is somewhat different...

Interesting perspective.
 
>                                            Marc Ruehlaender
>                                            aka HomDoq
>                                            [email protected]

charghwI'



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