tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Jan 16 10:07:05 1997

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Re: Quotable quotes



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>Date: Thu, 16 Jan 1997 07:01:33 -0800
>From: Ivan A Derzhanski <[email protected]>
>
>HurghwI' wrote:
>> jatlh 'Iwvan:
>> >David Trimboli wrote:
>> >> [...] Hoch 'oHbe' quv'e'; Doch neH 'oH.
>> >
>> >`Honour is not all; it is merely a thing.'
>> 
>> That would be <...Doch 'oH neH>.
>
>Hardly.  That would mean `only it is a thing', `it alone is a thing'.

No, THAT would mean "it is merely a thing."  The pronoun "'oH" in this
sentence is functioning as the verb, so neH after it is triviallizing that
action of "being" a thing.

>> "Unlike other adverbials, <neH> can follow a noun. In such cases
>> it means only, alone." TKD 56
>
>Exactly.  Let's see how it works.  {Doch} `a/the thing'.  {Doch neH}
>`only a/the thing', `a/the thing alone'.  {Doch neH 'oH} `it is only
>a/the thing (and nothing else)'.  nap, qar'a'?

Ooog.  This is something I had not considered.  I see where you're coming
from.  If "yaS neH vIlegh" means "I see only the officer," then "Doch neH
'oH" would logically mean "only it is a thing."

Ah, but would it?  THAT really would have to be "Doch 'oH 'oH'e' neH"!  (or
possibly 'oH neH 'oH Doch'e').  A big part of the problem is the double-use
of 'oH as pronoun and copula.  in "Doch 'oH"/"it is a/the thing," Doch is
plainly a noun (since as a verb it means something totally different), and
thus 'oH must be functioning as a predicate (thus verbally).  I suppose if
you're being very picky, "Doch neH 'oH" would come out to "it is a/the
thing alone" (not merely!).

Personally, I think "Doch neH 'oH" does sort of work for this, but 'Iwvan's
points are good and can't be countered with just what I feel.  Moreover, I
suspect that Klingon would express "the only thing" with someting using
"mob" or "latlh", and basically this proverb wouldn't translate for beans.

~mark

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