tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Dec 29 19:21:14 1996
[Date Prev][Date Next][Thread Prev][Thread Next]
Re: mu'tlheghmeywIj SochDIch vImugh
- From: [email protected]
- Subject: Re: mu'tlheghmeywIj SochDIch vImugh
- Date: Sun, 29 Dec 1996 22:20:43 -0500
I realize that this is an old (comparitively speaking) topic , but I had a
flash of inspiration, and thought I'd share it with you all. In the case of
"let he who is without sin cast the first stone ", it seems that context has
slipped by the wayside. A woman had been convicted of adultery. The
punishment was death by stoning. A crowd had gathered to carry out the
sentence. Christ intervened, saying "Let he who is without sin cast the first
stone ". In this context, a more accurate translation would be " yemwI' bIj
taghjaj yembe'bogh vay' neH . " ( Only one who has not sinned may initiate
the punishment of one who sins.) Is this not more in keeping with the
meaning of the original statement? And is it grammatically correct?