tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Dec 04 08:25:13 1996

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Re: More Translations...



> > K:	tIghmeylIj HIghojmoH.
> > E:	Teach me your customs.
> 
> Here's another double-object problem.  charghwI', of course, would adore it, 
> but I don't.  Here's why.
> 
> {HIghojmoH} means "teach me."  More literally according to the Klingon, it 
> means "cause me to learn."  The subject is "you."  What's the object?  The 
> object is "me."
> 
> But if {HIghojmoH} already has a subject and an object, then what part of 
> speech is {tIghmeylIj}?  It doesn't have a place!  The way to avoid this 
> problem is to remember that {ghojmoH} doesn't simply mean "teach," it means 
> "cause to learn."
> 
> This is another sentence which must be expanded.  Here's one way:
> 
> tIghmeylIj vIHaD vIneH.  HIghojmoH.
> 
This is just to check whether I understood that thing with {-moH} on
transitive verbs correctly:

The object of {ghoj} is the subject (= topic :) you learn about, so that 
should still be the object of {ghojmoH}, right? 
The subject of {ghoj} should become the "indirect object" of {ghojmoH}, 
right?

So it should be {jIHvaD tIghmeylIj tIghojmoH}, right?

> > K:	mIvvetlh yItuQmoHQo'.
> > E:	Don't put that helmet on.
> 
> Ugh.  This one is probably the worst of the lot.  The problem is similar to 
> the one with {ghojmoH}.  There's an added complication.  The object of the 
> English translation of {tuQmoH} "put on (clothes)" would be the piece of 
> clothing.  The object of the English translation of {tuQHa'moH} "undress" 
> could NOT be the clothing, it would have to be the person who is being 
> undressed.  The negation of a verb seems to be changing its object!
> 
I don't think so. 

> Some might interpret this as evidence that words which are verbs with 
> suffixes and which are extra entries in the dictionary are seperate words 
> in their own right, and they work just like their English glosses.  I
> still don't buy it. My guess is that Okrand simply did a sloppy job 
> explaining this.
> 
> In fact, I'm not even sure if {tuQ} is transitive!  {jItuQ} *could* mean, "I 
> wear clothing," and that could be the end of it.  Still, I don't really 
> believe this.  I shall examine your sentence with the assumption that {tuQ} 
> is transitive, and the object is the article of clothing.  (And please take 
> any further debate of this subject out of KLBC!)
> 
That's what I did, though I think most of my questions still belong
under KLBC...

> mIvvetlh yItuQchoHQo'!
> Don't start wearing that helmet!
> 
> Surely, this takes care of the "put on" idea, right?
> 
If {tuQ} is transitive in the sense above and my understanding of
{-moH} on transitive verbs (as further above :) is O.K., then

{mIv vItuQ} is "I wear a helmet.", right?

{jIHvaD mIv vItuQmoH} is "I put on a helmet.", right?

{SoHvaD mIv vItuQmoH} is "I cause you to wear a helmet.", right?
(meaning that I put it on you or s.th., excuse my English here.)

{SoHvaD mIv yItuQmoH} is "Put on the helmet!", right?

And finally, {SoHvaD mIvvetlh yItuQmoHQo'} is "Don't put on that helmet!",
right?

As for {tuQHa'moH}: {tuQHa'} means "miswear" to me, so I think 
{tuQHa'moH} is more probably derived from {tuQmoH}, i.e. it means
"put off (clothes)" and the clothes are still the direct object
while the one being undressed is the indirect object. Thus
"I undress him." becomes {ghaHvaD jItuQHa'moH}, which makes
perfect sense to me, even though there's a "no object" prefix
on a {-moH}-ed verb. To me this is similar to {jISop}, you
don't specify _what_ you are taking off of him. If you just
remove his boots, "I take off his boots." becomes {ghaHvaD
DaS vItuQHa'moH}. Right?

(btw: if I'm wearing his boots, then taking them off would 
have to be {jIHvaD DaSDaj vItuQmoH}, right?)

HomDoq



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