tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Apr 18 15:31:26 1996

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Re: -lu' with explicit objects



marqoS writes:
>If a verb has an indefinite subject but a definite object, to be
>named explicitly as a noun rather than absorbed as the pronoun implied
>by the prefix, where does the noun go?  Does it precede the verb, as an
>object, or follow it, as the subject (matching the prefix change
>brought on by {-lu'})?

It's still the object.  It still precedes the verb.  {-lu'} doesn't
turn the object into the subject; it just messes with the prefix.
There *is* no subject.

>My personal interpretation, made without referencing TKD since my copy
>is at home and I'm at work, is that it should match the verbal
>prefix and occupy the subject position.  So, if Kruge had wanted to
>emphasize "you" in "You will be remembered with honor", it would be
>        batlh Daqawlu'taH SoH
>and not
>        batlh SoH Daqawlu'taH
>Agreed?

No.  See TKD's description of {-lu'} in section 4.2.5 -- the canon
example {naDev puqpu' tu'lu'} contradicts your interpretation.  It
*acts like* passive voice in English, but it isn't quite the same.

-- ghunchu'wI'               batlh Suvchugh vaj batlh SovchoH vaj




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