tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Tue Aug 09 02:50:30 1994
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Re: Klingon math, et al
- From: [email protected]
- Subject: Re: Klingon math, et al
- Date: Tue, 09 Aug 94 14:37:39 EDT
>>[The question mark is because {QuS} REALLY doesn't seem like a
>>very transitive verb, yet a {-lu} suffix ALWAYS implies an
>>object. Similarly, {SuD} listed as "gamble, take a chance, take
>>a risk" becomes "In order that one gambles it" or "in order
>>that it is gambled". I transformed this "it" into the "risk"
>>that
>>is "taken". Of the entire translation, {QuSlu'meH} seems the
>>strangest choice of words.]
>Not quite true. "-lu'" need not imply an object. It only implies that the
>*subject* is indefinite. You can have an indefinite subject and no object.
>It's basically like replacing the subject with "vay'". Indeed, we have
>canonical evidence: in TKD, in the phraselist, we have "quSDa[q]
>ba'lu''a'?" (typo: there's a Q instead of a q). This is given as "Is this
>seat taken?" Literally, it's "Is someone/something sitting in the seat" or
>even "Is it being sat in the chair?" Sanskrit, which has a real passive,
>has no problem saying things like "In the forest it is happily lived by the
>hermits". Don't mistake indefinite subject for a required object.
I don't know about that, since whenever {-lu'} is used, the prefix gets
flopped. It still seems to me that a grammatical object must somehow be
involved. What {quSDaq ba'lu''a'} says to me is that {ba'} takes a kind of
object, but that object must be locative. The sentence comes out as "Is this
seat being sat *in*?" What {QuSlu'} says to me is that {QuS} is mayhaps
transitive. In that case, it is just as appropriate as {jatlhlu'} or
{tlhoblu'}.
>>ooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo
>>charghwI'
>~mark
Guido#1, Leader of All Guidos