tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Jul 28 05:30:08 2006

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Re: pronouns

Shane MiQogh ([email protected])



>That's right. The "equals" meaning is what Klingon does with the 
>pronoun-as-verb. The "exist" meaning, if you'll pardon the pun, doesn't 
>exist in Klingon; you have to recast, usually with {tu'lu'} or {lutu'lu'}.
   
  Of course...
   
  >You would be surprised how many languages do this. In Turkish, copularity is 
>usually represented by adding a special series of pronominal endings to 
>nouns. In Ubykh, it's done with a noun suffix. In Hebrew (I believe; Voragh 
>would be able to confirm or correct this) the copula is most usually given 
>simply by apposition, and in Russian, in normal speech the copula is not 
>used in the present tense.
  This is intresting...
   
  >While I can't think of a language that uses a pronoun-as-copular-construct 
>in the same way as Klingon does (although Russian might come close), I also 
>can't think of a single natural language that has a regular copula. {{:)

  Klingon is the only language that i know of that dosn't conjugate "to have." And right now i'm trying to work out the conjugation of "dearu" but there are many terms involving different types of conjugation and the people who know their stuff perpously are avoiding answering the question(s) and are simply saying "slow down." I wouldn't need to slow down if they'd just answer a few simple questions... jeeze.. Anyway, it seems japanese has 10+ different possible conjugations of the copula.

 		
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