tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Oct 10 22:26:00 2004
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Re: -be'lu' vs. -lu'be'
- From: "QeS lagh" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: -be'lu' vs. -lu'be'
- Date: Mon, 11 Oct 2004 14:51:00 +1000
ghItlhpu' Quvar:
>{tu'lu'} is a bad example to explain this, because it is too often used as
>"there is" instead of its literal meaning.
I suspect this situation might be the reason why we find both {tu'lu'be'}
and {tu'be'lu'}. The word {tu'lu'} is used so often that it may have become
almost a word in its own right. {tu'be'lu'} may be the most common or
"normal" usage, and {tu'lu'be'} slang or idiomatic: in the same way, some
people find verbs ending in {-taHneSvIS} to sound weird, even though there's
technically no violation of the grammar in them. {-taHvIS} is just what you
always hear.
QeS lagh
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