tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Jul 30 02:59:50 2004
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Re: TKD phrase: {-meH} clause
- From: "QeS lagh" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: TKD phrase: {-meH} clause
- Date: Fri, 30 Jul 2004 19:59:09 +1000
- Bcc:
ghItlhpu' Holtej:
>If it were the subject of {HIvmeH}, then the sentence would mean "one
>cloaks an in-order-to-attack-ship," (or, "one cloaks an attack-ship", or
>"an attack ship is cloaked") which isn't what the translation suggests.
>{Duj} is
>not the subject of {HIvmeH} here.
I think you may be confusing "subject" with "modified noun". A {-meH} clause
modifying a noun can have both IMO, as I've shown before with {maghwI'
vIHoHmeH taj} "a knife for me to kill traitors with".
Now, there's nothing wrong with the subject of {HIvmeH} being an elided
{'oH}, referring to the ship. In that way, the {-meH} clause modifies the
verb, rather than the noun {Duj}:
{HIvmeH (Duj) Duj So'lu'} - in order that it attacks, one cloaks a ship
{HIvmeH Duj (Duj) So'lu'} - in order that the ship attacks, one cloaks it
There's nothing to say that a pronoun's referent must precede it. Although,
if the subject of a noun-modifying {-meH} clause is different from the noun
that it modifies, there arises the question of a {-meH} clause having
explicit subject AND object while modifying a noun: ??{<Qang chotmeH
maghwI'> pu' wItu'nIS} "we need to find the phaser that the traitor will
murder the chancellor with!"
>Look, I don't want to get into a fight over whether this is {DIlmeH Huch}
>or
>just {DIlmeH}. I was simply pointing out that there is at least ONE person
>out here who prefers the simpler {<Dochvetlh DIlmeH> Huch 'ar DaneH}
>interpretation. Since the {<Dochvetlh DIlmeH Huch> 'ar DaneH} view was
>being advanced as the only possibly correct view, I wanted to point out
>that
>I disagree.
qay'be'. Sojvammo' jISuv vIneHbe' je. batlh ngerlIj Danobta'. Your argument
does make sense.
Savan.
QeS lagh
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