tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Jul 28 17:41:06 2004

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Re: TKD phrase: {-meH} clause

QeS lagh ([email protected])



ghItlhpu' lay'tel SIvten:
>Now I would say {Dochvetlh vIDIlmeH Huch 'ar DaneH}, adding {vI-} "I" as 
>the explicit subject of {DIlmeH}.  Is context so strong in the paying 
>scenario that this sort of explicitness is unnecessary?

I think part of the problem may be that you're misinterpreting the {-meH} 
clause here. As I see it, the TKD sentence {Dochvetlh DIlmeH Huch 'ar DaneH} 
uses the {-meH} clause {Dochvetlh DIlmeH} to modify {Huch}, not to modify 
the main clause. These are the two possible analyses:

<Dochvetlh DIlmeH> Huch 'ar DaneH
- in which we'd probably expect {Dochvetlh vIDIlmeH Huch 'ar DaneH}; and

<Dochvetlh DIlmeH Huch> 'ar DaneH
- in which both it and {Dochvetlh vIDIlmeH Huch 'ar DaneH} are fine.

I think that the second is the case, and that yes, context clearly 
identifies who's paying whom.

Personally, I like the idea that {-meH} clauses that modify verbs should 
take prefixes wherever appropriate, but those modifying nouns do not need to 
(but I'd argue they still can: {maghwI' vIHoHmeH taj} "a knife for me to 
kill traitors with"). While I don't seek to make that the final word on the 
subject, it gets rid of a lot of ambiguity, and I've found it a useful 
technique.

QeS lagh

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