tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Feb 18 11:50:19 2004

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Re: Noun Stressing Question

Daniel Abraham ([email protected]) [KLI Member] 

> Sangqar:
>
>Hamlet:
>Nouns are stressed on the final syllable of the stem....However, if any
syllable...ends in a 
>glottal stop, it is stressed instead....Adjacent syllables ending in
glottal stops receive equal 
>stress.
>
>TKD:
>In a noun, the stressed syllable is usually the syllable right before the
first noun suffix, or the 
>final syllable if there is no suffix. If, however, a syllable ending in '
is present, it is usually 
>stressed instead. If there are two syllables in a row both ending in ',
both are equally 
>stressed.
>
>Where do you see a contradiction?

bIjaj:

TKD specifically allows stressing verb suffixes (under specific conditions),
but doesn't do the same when later referring to nouns - it merely talks
about syllables. As I see it on first glance, this is an ambiguity - any
syllables within the noun stem, or including suffix syllables as well?

It seems to me the MO really tried to emphasize that when talking about noun
syllables he's referring to the stem ("syllable right before the first noun
suffix, or the final syllable if there is no suffix" ), and so the exception
to the general noun stressing rule is applied only in multi-syllable nouns
containing glottal stops, but still not including the noun suffixes.

Why not just say like "it's just like verbs, but you can stress the first
suffix as well."

chuHchu'be' 'e' vIQub. tlhoy Sormey vIlegh vaj ngem vIleghbe'.

bIjaj

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