tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sat Sep 13 01:20:46 2003

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Re: Re[4]: How to convert a noun to a verb???

YemQoyaD ([email protected])



in section 3.3.4. Type 4: Possession/specification (page 25 TKD) it lists 
-Daj as "his/her/its," but in the back of the book (page 162 and again on165) 
-Daj is just listed as "his/her."

In a message dated 9/13/03 1:05:30, [email protected] writes:

>> There IS a possessive for "its": {-Daj}. Daj, qar'a'? ;-)
>
>Hmm, I wonder why I missed that.  What am I thinking of, then?  There's
>a
>rule *somewhere*, but all I can remember about it is that there is no form
>of "its" while there is a form for his/her or something like that...
>Shoot, I just flipped through the TKD and can't find a single thing like
>that...  Am I dreaming?  Could the newer TKD I have at home have had "its"
>added to it since the copy I have at work?  The covers are the same, I
>can't imagine that'd be the case...  :P
>
>...Paul


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