tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Mar 03 12:01:55 2003

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Re: {oy}, diphthong or V+C



> ghItlh qeyS:
> 
> >I don't want to go too much into the phonetics here but I
> >assumed that {oy} was considered a diphthong since it was
> >described as a separate 'sound' in the TKD (like {aw}, {ew},
> >{Iy}, etc.), <snip>
> 

ja' Sanqar:

> Does anyone actually pronounce this combination as a consonant?  That is, as
> 
> /oj/ instead of as /oI/ (to use an approximation of IPA).  It's certainly 
> possible to spronounce it as a consonant, but MO seems to think it should be
> 
I don't think it is actually a matter of pronunciation.
to me there is not much difference in (syllable-final)
[Oj] or [OI], and a Klingon probably just won't care :)

IMO, it is much more a matter of perception, and judging
from the absence of syllables ending in -oyb, -oych, -oyD
etc. the Klingon ear more probably experiences -oy as VC
(and -oy' as VCC).


Marc Ruehlaender
aka HomDoq
[email protected]





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