tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Aug 09 11:47:20 1995

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Re: }} {-wI'} on sentences



According to Jeremy Cowan:
> 
> On Tue, 8 Aug 1995, ghunchu'wI' wrote:
> > gheyIl writes:
> > >I might be convinced that the verb in question could have
> > >an object, but then it would seem an awful lot like a N-N
> > >construction, although not a "possessive" construction.
> > 
> > My argument exactly: it SEEMS like a N-N construction, but because N-N is
> > supposed to be simply "possessive", it makes sense to consider instead that
> > {-wI'} can act on a verb which has an object.
> 
> When I hear the suggestion that a verb with an object can take -wI' I ask 
> myself, "Then what's -bogh for?"  But there is an argument that such 
> examples already exist.  How do we know that these AREN'T N-N 
> constructions?  I would like to see explanations (from both sides) of how 
> these examples work in YOUR theory.  (I know some have been presented, 
> but I would like to see more and I would like to see comments from both 
> sides.)  When using canon examples, please reference.  And when using 
> theoretical examples, please mark them as such.
> 
> janSIy

I'm growing weary with this. It should be obvious. Simply put,
there is no single example of the pseudotheoretical {-wI'}
clause canon that cannot be explained by a noun-noun
construction, so there is no reason to suspect that the {-wI'}
clauseqoq actually exists at all, except in the mind of
ghunchu'wI', who alone has a misguided rejection of noun-noun
explanations because he misunderstands what a noun-noun
construction does and tries to be overly restrictive in its use.

He then goes on to write his own personal rules of grammar
which are not related to anything Okrand ever wrote and demands
attention to somehow prove him to be false, while rejecting
clear arguments that really do prove him to be misguided.

charghwI'
-- 

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