tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Jun 27 06:30:16 1994
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Re: KLBC (old)- SaQum
- From: "Mark Nudelman" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: KLBC (old)- SaQum
- Date: 27 Jun 1994 15:15:25 U
Reply to: RE>>KLBC (old): SaQum
jatlh charghwI':
>While it is true that in the two examples Okrand gives in TKD,
>he translates {-meH} as "in order to", he also offers "for, for
>the purpose of" in the text. Why do you think he bothered to
>list those if the only valid translation is "in order to"? In
>the table, it is listed as "for (purpose marker)". Why bother
>with THAT if the only valid translation is "in order to"?
I'm not sure I follow your reasoning. "In order to" and "for the purpose
of" seem pretty much synonymous to me. I can't think of any examples
of English sentences where replacing one with the other makes any
significant difference in the meaning. I usually translate -meH as
"in order to X", but I don't see that it would matter if I used "for the
purpose of X-ing".
>Yes, if you translate my sentence with "in order to", then it
>doesn't make much sense. So?
I don't think it makes any more (or less) sense if you use "for the
purpose of". "For the purpose that I speak Klingon, I am not very
skilled." This sounds to me like you're saying you are deliberately
being unskilled in order to speak Klingon. Like "jagh tojmeH
jIpo'qu'be'".
--nachHegh
[email protected]