tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Jan 04 19:05:50 2007
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Re: Purpose Clauses (was Re: "conjunction"?)
On Thu, 4 Jan 2007, Alan Anderson wrote:
> ja' ...Paul:
>> Did I miss any examples?
>
> Yes.
>
> ja'chuqmeH rojHom
>
> This is the prototypical example. It is translated such that it
> doesn't appear to be a "conjugated" verb; like the other similar
> examples, it seems not to have a pronominal prefix at all.
Are you referring to the sentence in TKD? The full sentence there is:
ja'chuqmeH rojHom neH jaghla'
Oh, wow, I *just* noticed Okrand says /ja'chuqmeH rojHom/ "is the
object..." But I'm still uncertain about including this as an example,
because if the subject of /ja'chuq/ is "they", then the 0-prefix is
expected. Context here actually produces ambiguity; if the sentence was
spoken between people who are third party to the events, it's a 0-prefix
-- "The enemy commander wants a truce so they may confer". If it's being
spoken between members of one of the parties, they I agree, because I
would expect it to be /maja'chuqmeH/ "so *we* may confer".
Definitely potential for more ammunition, but the ambiguity makes me
hesitate to use it to "prove" the theory.
> ghojmeH taj
>
> The lack of prefix is clear. "Knife for the purpose of learning." I
> see it as stronger than an indefinite subject -- it's *no* subject.
Is this in the KGT? I didn't see it. Also, (more importantly, IMHO), is
it used in a sentence? /ghojmeH taj/ has the same problem as /pe'meH taj/
if it's not used in a sentence; as a fragment, I don't think we can infer
whether or not it would properly have a proper prefix when used in a full
contextual sentence (ie. we have no evidence its proper use wouldn't be
something like /DaghojmeH taj Dalo'nIS/)
And again, I reiterate; I think the theory is sound for explaining the
canon, I just hesitate promoting this uncertain use of the language...
...Paul
** ...Paul, [email protected], Insane Engineer **
** Visit Project Galactic Guide http://www.galactic-guide.com/ **
If it's not the same, it should be different.