tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Sep 15 11:30:15 2004
[Date Prev][Date Next][Thread Prev][Thread Next]
RE: jIb
-----Original Message-----
From: Steven Boozer
> >From: ngabwI'
> > > AFAIK, we have only one example of {jIb} in canon, from PK:
> > >
> > > {DaH jIbwIj vISay'nISmoH} "I must wash my hair now."
> > >
> > > So we have at least a "mass interpretation" of the word.
> Jeremy:
> >Unless there is an elided plural on jIb (i.e. jIbDu'wIj). I don't
> >think this line proves we can use it as a mass noun.
> I don't follow this. Do you really think that {DaH jIbwIj
vISay'nISmoH}
> can possibly imply washing a *single* hair??
I was apparently not clear. I think the word "jIbwIj" in the Okrand
sentence may either mean, "my head hair (as a whole)," or, "my head
hairs (individually gathered together)." Since a plural may be elided,
you cannot be certain that, in general, the noun "jIb" does not refer to
one hair and in this instance is an unmarked plural meaning "hairs".
> What do you think the line
> means? (I have only one hair on my head, and now I must wash it?
Only one
> of the hairs on my head is dirty and needs washing?)
In case I have still not been clear, I think it means either, "Now I
must wash my head of hair," or, "Now I must wash the hairs of my head."
And I maintain that they have different meanings and that you cannot
prove which is meant. Therefore we still have no proof that you can
specifically use it for either particular meaning. I, though I am no
expert, would currently accept both uses. Though we know that at least
one is acceptable, we don't know which. And of course we don't know if
both might actually be acceptable.
Jeremy