tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Jun 20 14:53:19 2004
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Re: moHaq nap, moHaq Qatlh ghap
- From: "QeS lagh" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: moHaq nap, moHaq Qatlh ghap
- Date: Mon, 21 Jun 2004 07:52:59 +1000
- Bcc:
ghItlhpu' jI'qel ghojwI':
>Because 'zero prefix' means 'there is no prefix' (TKD p. 33: "0 in the
>chart means that the particular subject-object combinations are
>indicated by the absence of a prefix before the verb...").
I'd always thought this meant that these were null prefixes. There is a
slight difference grammatically. But if this is the case, then that clears
up all arguments IMHO.
ghItlhpu' SuStel:
>I was disagreeing with your statement: "Since verb prefixes are
>part of every bare verb, why wouldn't they be part of a verb to which
>{-wI'}
>is added?" This is the only part of your message I quoted. My answer: you
>don't know that every verb has a prefix.
I know for a fact that some of them don't. The evidence that verbs using
{-meH} can lack verb prefixes seems pretty substantial. Also, the fact that
verbs using {-ghach} don't take verb prefixes supports this argument.
But I'm a bit confused: Is this all you're arguing, or are you arguing also
that the null prefixes are essentially no prefix at all?
>I added the final part of my message to include *my* opinion on the
>subject,
>not to disagree with yours.
luq. You just seemed to be asking me in particular how to translate
*{jIQongwI'}, *{chovanwI'} and the others, which indicated to me that you
thought I condoned {-wI'} plus verb prefix.
Sorry if I got a little hot under the collar.
Savan.
QeS lagh
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