tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sat Sep 13 01:03:40 2003

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Re: Re[4]: How to convert a noun to a verb???

...Paul ([email protected]) [KLI Member] 

On Sat, 13 Sep 2003, Lieven wrote:
> >And the third person possessive
> .....this is {-Daj}
>
> >makes no distinction between
> >beings
> .....but in english: "his, her"
>
> >and things.
> .....and there is "its"

No, the distinction lacking is between whether or not the object possessed
is a being capable of language or a "thing".  Whereas the first person
possessive was -wI' for one and -wIj for the other, the third person
possessive makes no distinction; there is only -Daj (for singular), and no
comparable "-Da'"

> There IS a possessive for "its": {-Daj}. Daj, qar'a'? ;-)

Hmm, I wonder why I missed that.  What am I thinking of, then?  There's a
rule *somewhere*, but all I can remember about it is that there is no form
of "its" while there is a form for his/her or something like that...
Shoot, I just flipped through the TKD and can't find a single thing like
that...  Am I dreaming?  Could the newer TKD I have at home have had "its"
added to it since the copy I have at work?  The covers are the same, I
can't imagine that'd be the case...  :P

...Paul

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