tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Fri Mar 26 20:29:12 1999
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Re: Order of ordinals
In a message dated 3/26/99 7:06:44 AM Eastern Standard Time,
[email protected] writes:
<<
Here is where I stand: Until MO gives us a reason to believe that he really
means {wa'DIch} is okay to use adverbially by explaining it to be so, or by
using it in other sentences enough that we know he intends it to be so, I
will
refrain from copying this construction.
peHruS
>>
But what is an ordinal? How do we know that the Klingon ordinal is the same
as the Chinese ordinal or the Swahili ordinal? I've taken 12 linguistics
courses and I know what I'm talking about. We must look through the languages
of the ancient Bush tribe that died out in the 16th century and the ancient
Phoenicians to gain a proper grasp of this concept. How do we even know that
wa'DIch is an ordinal? I have to see more examples from MO before I'll
believe it to be true. Until then, I'll just use all numbers suffixed with
-DIch as adverbials until I can use them as ordinals.
T'Lod
(chIch jIqIDta'. 'Iv SaqawmoH?)