tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Mar 04 12:35:10 1999
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KLBC: RE: KLBC:Eating.
- From: "Adam Snyder" <[email protected]>
- Subject: KLBC: RE: KLBC:Eating.
- Date: Thu, 4 Mar 1999 15:35:43 -0500
(QInvam pong jum yIbuSHa')
>> Is there a way of saying "I use this to do <something> to that"?
>There certainly is. Just plain "I use X" is obviously <X vIlo'>. "I use X
to
>Y" - or to be more explicit "I use X in order to Y" - is <jI-Y-meH X
vIlo'>.
Okay, I got the first part, I'll say <Dochvam vIlo'>. Now, to clarify, is
the second part, <Dochvetlh jIpe'meH (or whatever)>? Whenever I think of
the phrase "in order to do Y to that", Y is a noun (such as "harm", or
"insult", and not "book", or lamp"). In this case, the phrase would
translate as <DochvetlhvaD reghwI' jInob> (using <reghwI'> as a noun for
"cut"): "I give a cut to that thing". Is that wrong? My translation is:
<DochvetlhvaD reghwI' jInob Dochvam vIlo'> "I use this thing to give a
cut to that thing."
Maybe it's just more work for the same result.
--- loD Doq
***Is <QInvam pong jum yIbuSHa'> correct?***