tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Tue Dec 24 00:31:07 1996

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Re: Use of Verbs + types + -wI'



In a message dated 96-12-23 10:45:02 EST, ~mark writes:

<< >tlhutlhlu'wI'mey ghajbe' ghojmoHwI' pe''eghwI' je
 >
 >mu'mey {QubHa'wI'} {ghunchu'wI'} je vIleghpu'
 >'ej DaH wot mojaqDaj {-wI'} je jojDaq latlh wot mojaqmey DIlo' 'e' vIchup
 >
 >chay' Sujang
 
 jIyajbe'; qatlh pIjangnIS?  pagh Datlhob.  mu'mey "QubHa'wI'" "ghunchu'wI'"
 Daleghpu'.  vIleghpu' je jIH.  'ej wot "-wI'" je jojDaq latlh wot mojaq
 DIlo' 'e' Dachup.  wejpuH.  qatlh DachupnISqu' 'e' DaHar?  DIlo'ba'!  'ej
 qaStaHvIS DISmey DIlo'!  'ej qatlh DIlo'nISbe'?  wot mojaq Segh Hut mojaq
 'oH "-wI'"'e'; vaj Segh cha' mojaq, Segh loS mojaq, Hoch Segh mojaq
 tlha'nIS 'ej tlha'laH.  qay' nuq?
  >>

>From some discussiona long time ago about "Buy me a drink," we could now
produce such words as {tlhutlhlu'wI'} for "drink, that which is drunk."
 {ghojmoHwI'} becomes "teacher"; and {pe''eghwI'} becomes "scorekeeper."
 Others might include {ja'chuqwI'pu'} for "conferees."

Basically, I have searched through TKD looking for a reason why we cannot use
a verb + -lu' + wI'.  I have not found any such reason.  Still, most of the
words I read on this listserv using -wI' to change a verb into a noun have
-wI' on the bare stem.  I have not seen before anyone attempting to use verb
+ -lu' + -wI'.  I still seek comments as to the validity of such
constructions.  After all, this construction opens up numerous possibilites
for new translations of English nouns.

peHruS


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