tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Wed Mar 22 20:09:29 1995
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Re: 'Iv as pronoun?
On Wed, 22 Mar 1995, charghwI' wrote:
> Seeing the title on a recent post: {qeylIS ghaH 'Iv?}...
> If 'Iv is treated like a noun... might we extend this to say that it
> would be treated like a pronoun? By that, I mean, can we use it for the
> verb "to be"?
>
> qeylIS 'Iv?
vIparHa'qu'
> Otherwise, the title should have included the suffix {-'e'},
> and I don't really like {qeylIS ghaH 'Iv'e'?}.
I guess Okrand used nuq this way, but it's gross.
> [Or] it would have to be {'Iv ghaH qeylIS'e'?}.
As much as I like the first suggestion, this is the one I would support
until we hear more from Okrand.
janSIy