tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Mon Jul 16 00:21:44 2012
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[Tlhingan-hol] nuq bop bom: 'ay' cha'vatlh cha'maH cha': 'omwI'pu'
- From: "De'vID" <[email protected]>
- Subject: [Tlhingan-hol] nuq bop bom: 'ay' cha'vatlh cha'maH cha': 'omwI'pu'
- Date: Mon, 16 Jul 2012 09:21:25 +0200
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<br>Qov:<br>>>> nuHmeyDaj chaH neH."<br><br>Maybe use a verb like {Da} or {'oS} instead of {chaH}?<br><br>ghunchu'wI':<br>>> munuQ <neH> lo'vam.<br>>><br>>> Whenever I write something like this, I usually end up changing it to<br>
>> put {neH} after the object instead of after the pronoun. On the other<br>>> hand, when I write it that way in the first place, I often end up<br>>> changing it to be the way you wrote it. Do you want to trivialize the<br>
>> idea of "be her weapons", or do you want to say they are her weapons<br>>> and nothing more? I have the feeling there is an important distinction<br>>> to be made between the two. My inclination today is not to trivialize<br>
>> the "to be", and I think {neH} should be moved.<br>>><br>>> Does that make sense?<br><br>{nuHmeyDaj neH chaH}<br><br>Which applies first, the {neH} or the {-Daj}? Can this be read as "they're her only weapons (and she has no other weapon)"? (And if not, how would one express this latter idea?)<br>
<br>I read the above as "they're only her weapons", "they're her weapons and they're not anything else", in a literal sense. Is this literally the case, or does she merely treat them or think of them that way? I think the English "they're only her X" is idiomatic for "they're merely X to her", but this idiom may not carry into Klingon.<br>
<br>I think {ghaHvaD nuHmey neH chaH} is clearer.<br><br><br>Qov:<br>> yaj. It's the way it is because I don't want it read as "They want her weapons.". To my understanding, neH after a boy trivializes the noun and after a verb, the whole phrase.<br>
<br>Boy?<br><br>--<br>De'vID<br><br><br>-- <br>De'vID<br>
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