tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Tue Jan 13 13:22:30 2004

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Re: "ser" and "estar" (to be)

Lieven L. Litaer (Quvar) ([email protected])

• From: Lieven L. Litaer (Quvar) <[email protected]>
• Subject: Re: "ser" and "estar" (to be)
• Date: Tue, 13 Jan 2004 20:19:46 +0100
• In-Reply-To: <[email protected]>

Am 13.01.2004 18:44:51, schrieb "chepqu'" <[email protected]>:

Klingon pronoun-verbs used for "to be", as I have understood it, mean exactly the same as in 
English. ...Or, is there a difference? For example, in Spanish, there are two verbs that can be used 
as a Spanish translation of "to be"; "ser" and "estar". I'm not a Spanish grammarian but a native 
speaker, and I generally use "estar" with a temporary meaning while "ser" is permanent 

Correct. 
"estar" is used to describe a condition, a moment or a location, while "ser" describes things that are 
certain, a fact, and won't change:
   "Soy Belga." - "Estoy cansado."
   "I am Belgian" - "I am tired"
Confusing these might sound strange to native spanish speakers :-)

>Is there any difference in Klingon too? or do they mean exactly what "to be" means?

Short answer: yes.
Opposed to spanish, there is only one kind of "to be" (even if there is not at all).

Quvar.

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    • From: "chepqu'" <[email protected]>

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